How does he explain the figures from the Scottish Government which show that in mid-2012 the population reached 5.3 million, its highest ever?
The big period of net outward migration was back in the 1980s, there was little change in the 1990s and since 2000 there has been net migration into Scotland.
If there has been a “massive reduction in the industrial base” as he suggests, why is GDP per capita only slightly below the UK average excluding oil and gas, slightly higher including energy?
Has he seen that unemployment in Scotland was only 6.4 per cent in January, below the UK average of 7.1 per cent and its lowest since 1979.
In the run up to the referendum, rather better to look at the hard facts and figures than claims without substance.