Richard Lucas (Letters, 25 April) agrees there is no record of Jesus referring to homosexuality but assumes he opposed it because that was the prevailing societal attitude then.
Since Jesus did not accept many of the other norms of his time, there is no basis for this view.
Does he also assume that, since Jesus did not mention slavery, which was then the norm, or the barbaric punishments advocated in Deuteronomy and Leviticus, Jesus agreed with these? If not, why?
Christians would gain more respect, even admiration, if they focused on things which Jesus did say and are entirely clear, for example: “judge not…”, “cast the beam…”, “by their fruits ye shall know them” and “go sell what you have and give the proceeds to the poor.”
Even if Jesus was opposed to homosexuality, he clearly did not think it to be the issue of importance some religious people hold it to be.
Mr Lucas says others use the Bible to support their own ideas. That is what he is doing himself.